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2011-11-10T23:42:00.000-08:00

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Related Exams:
1Y0-251 – CCEA 3.0 MetaFrame Presentation Server 3.0: Management and Maintenance for the Enterprise
HP0-815 – Advanced SAN Architecture
HP0-M23 – HP Business Availability Center Foundation
000-294 – test294 ibm websphere mq v5.3 system administration
HP0-055 – Implementing HP ProLiant Servers

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2011-10-11T23:20:00.000-07:00

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2011-08-05T02:30:00.000-07:00

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2011-07-14T05:40:00.000-07:00

At present, IT industry has had more than 200 kinds of certification trainings. These certification trainings are mainly classified as follows: first, manufacturer certification. Such as manufacturer certifications issued by Cisco and so on are well known by us now. The second category is the certificate issued by related international IT industry organizations. Such as certificates issued by the U.S. Computer Industry Association and the Information Technology of Cambridge Examinations Board etc.

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You may like these Exam:
Cheat-Test 642-503 : Securing Networks with Cisco Routers and Switches
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Cheat-Test 642-532 : Securing Networks Using Intrusion Prevention Systems Exam (IPS)

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2011-06-13T04:34:00.000-07:00

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2011-02-15T21:50:00.000-08:00

Cisco certification offers various exams out of which 642-691 is an important exam. It is also called as CCIP BGP and MPLS. Through this certification candidate acquire knowledge regarding configuration of BGP in Cisco routers and implementing MPLS Cisco courses. 691 exam is available only in English language and not in other languages. Registration is done through the Pearson VUE centers or in the Pearson VUE website online or in the Cisco website by just making payment of exam fee. Exam fee is around 250 US$ and it doesn’t include any discounts or taxes. Exam fee may differ in each country depending on the exchange rate. After payment of fee exam venue, date, and session is finalized.

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2011-01-17T04:08:00.000-08:00

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Related Cisco Certification Exams:

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640-863 Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions

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2011-01-10T08:54:00.000-08:00

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2010-10-20T06:56:00.000-07:00

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Related Exams:
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000-331 – Power Systems Sales for AIX and Linux
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650-393 – LCSE Cisco Lifecycle Services Express
642-892 – Composite

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2010-09-27T10:44:00.003-07:00

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2010-09-27T10:44:00.001-07:00

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2010-07-24T21:31:00.000-07:00

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SY0-201 - CompTIA Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam

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2010-06-23T05:06:00.000-07:00

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2010-04-17T08:35:00.000-07:00

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2010-04-17T08:32:00.000-07:00

Exam Name: Cisco Certified Design Expert Qualification Exam
Exam Code: 352-001
Cheat-Test Last Update: April 2010
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Free 352-001 Sample Questions:

Q: 1 Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering
Answer: B

Q: 2 NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing. Which function is of NetFlow?
A. monitor configuration changes
B. monitor CPU utilization
C. monitor link utilization
D. generate traps for failure conditions
Answer: C

Q: 3 The XYI company is deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites needn't to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a concern).
How to configure OSPF for this topology in order to minimize the additional routing information
injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum?
A. Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a neighbor.
B. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router.
C. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers.
D. Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF point-to-point.
Answer: B

Q: 4 What is high availability?
A. redundant infrastructure
B. clustering of computer systems
C. reduced MTBF
D. continuous operation of computing systems
Answer: D

Q: 5 What is the way that an OSPF ABR uses to prevent summary route information from being readvertised from an area into the network core (Area 0)?
A. It advertises only inter-area summaries to the backbone.
B. It uses poison reverse and split horizon.
C. It only sends locally originated summaries to the backbone.
D. It compares the area number on the summary LSA to the local area.
Answer: C

Q: 6 Connecting an IS-IS router to four links and redistributing 75 routes from RIP.
How many LSPs will be originated by this router?
A. one LSP: containing the router information, internal routes, and external routes
B. six LSPs: one for each link, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
C. two LSPs: one containing router information and internal routes and one containing external routes
D. three LSPs: one containing all links, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
Answer: A

Q: 7 According to the network in this exhibit, traffic directed towards 10.1.5.1 arrives at XYI-R4. Which path will the traffic take from here?
A. It will take XYI-R2.
B. It will not take any path. XYI-R4 will drop the traffic.
C. It will take XYI-R3.
D. It will load share between XYI-R2 and XYI-R3.
Answer: A

Q: 8 You are the Cisco Network Designer in cheat-test.com. Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
Answer: B, D

Q: 9 The IGP next-hop reachability for a BGP route is lost but a default route is available.
Assuming that BGP connectivity is maintained, what will happen to the BGP route?
A. It will be put in a hold-down state by BGP until the next hop has been updated.
B. It will be removed from the BGP table.
C. It will be considered a valid route.
D. It will be considered invalid for traffic forwarding.
Answer: C

Q: 10 In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the topology table at Router XYI-RC, you see only one path towards 10.1.1.0/24.
Why Router XYI-RC only has one path in its topology table?

A. Router XYI-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router XYI-RC due to split horizon.
B. Router XYI-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router XYI-RC because Router XYI-RC is its feasible successor.
C. Router XYI-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router XYI-RC due to split horizon.
D. Router XYI-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router XYI-RC because Router XYI-RC is its feasible successor.
Answer: C

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2009-12-01T11:03:00.000-08:00

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2009-10-12T09:39:00.000-07:00

(350-050) CCIE Wireless Written Exam

Cisco 350-050 Exam - Certifysky.com

Free 350-050 Sample Questions:

Q: 1 Which two options are correct according to debug output presented in the following exhibit ? (Choose two.)

A. The wireless client uses a static IP address, so "0.0.0.0 START (0)" can be found in the logs.
B. The wireless client has been successfully authenticated. Reauthentication is set to occur on an extremely aggressive schedule (every five seconds).
C. The wireless client "hangs" in probes (does not proceed with 802.11 authentication and association). It is likely that the "encryption" or "key-management" advertised in the probe response does not match.
D. Since the AP receives a probe request from the wireless client, the Access Point Functions state for the machine changes from "Idle" to "Probe."
Answer: C, D

Q: 2 Which two statements correctly describe RTS/CTS? (Choose two.)
A. When the transmitted packet is equal to or larger than the RTS threshold, an RTS packet is sent. The destination node must respond with a CTS packet before the originator can send the real data packet.
B. Since the introduction of EDCA (WMM and 802.11e), the RTS/CTS sequence has been rendered
unnecessary.
C. 802.11d replaced the RTS/CTS sequence with CTS to Self.
D. The RTS and CTS are small and, if lost in a collision, they can be retried more quickly and with less overhead than if the whole packet must be retried.
Answer: A, D

Q: 3 The following message can be seen on a Cisco WCS:
AP 'floor-1-lobby', interface '802.11b/g' on Controller '10.1.1.1'. Noise threshold violated.
There is also a correlation between the occurrence of the message and user complaints. Which action should you take?
A. Check the logs for rogues in the area, then turn on rogue mitigation.
B. Seek out the source of the noise with a spectrum analyzer.
C. Manually increase the power of the AP to overcome the interference.
D. Increase the interference threshold from the default 10%.
Answer: B

Q: 4 Study the following situations carefully, then answer my question.
Wireless client (CB21) configured for SSID "CCIE-2"; IP address "dhcp".
Configure standalone authonomous AP with three SSIDs and three data VLANs plus the native VLAN.
AAA server IP ranges:
VLAN-2:10.20.1.1.100-10.20.1.128
VLAN-3:10.30.1.1.100-10.30.1.128
VLAN-4:10.40.1.1.100-10.40.1.128
Question:
The user wants to get an IP address from VLAN-2 which is mapped to the SSID CCIE-2 the client is associating. Why does this wireless client get a wrong IP address?

A. LEAP authentication fails due to wrong password or unknown username, therefore the wireless-client is mapped to the default VLAN.
B. The RADIUS server is not reachable from the AP, therefore the wireless client is mapped to the default VLAN.
C. LEAP needs "network-eap" on the SSID. You must not configure "open eap"

D. The RADIUS server assigned VLAN-4 during authentication/authorization process.
Answer: D

Q: 5 It is suggested that you prime or stage your lightweight access points in a convenient location, rather that after they have been installed in locations that may be difficult to reach.
Which three items can be configured by using the controller CLI, controller GUI, or Cisco WCS while priming a lightweight AP prior to deployment? (Choose three.)
A. to configure the lightweight access point with primary, secondary, and tertiary controller names
B. to configure the Controller Mobility Group name, if the lightweight access point is in a Controller Mobility Group
C. to configure the access-point-specific LED blink sequence
D. to configure the access-point-specific 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g network settings
Answer: A, B, D

Q: 6 How to describe the radiation pattern of patch and Yagi antennas when viewed from the side (H-plane)?
A. the patch patterns are egg-shaped, the Yagi patterns are conical
B. the patch patterns are doughnut-shaped, the Yagi patterns are conical
C. the patch patterns are conical, the Yagi patterns are doughnut-shaped
D. the patch patterns are conical, the Yagi patterns are egg-shaped
Answer: A

Q: 7 Which description concerning wireless voice traffic is correct?
A. Voice traffic is more latency-sensitive.
B. Wireless voice traffic must be on a dedicated channel apart from wireless data.
C. Wireless voice devices cannot share APs with wireless data NIC cards.
D. 1Mb/s and 2Mb/s data rates are required for the phones, but not for the wireless data traffic.
Answer: A

Q: 8 Observe the following statements, which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature?
A. Read-write access is not available; only read-only access is supported.
B. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not nonsecure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to which the client is associated.
Answer: C

Q: 9 Observe the following options carefully, which functionality, as defined by IEEE 802.11e, does WWM certify as part of the tests for QoS done by the WiFi Alliance?
A. EDCA
B. HCCA
C. Direct Link Setup
D. S-APSD
Answer: A

Q: 10 Lightweight Access Point Protocol or LWAPP is the name of a protocol that can control multiple Wi-Fi wireless access points at once. How does the Cisco WCS know what has happened in an LWAPP system when an AP's interface goes down and then comes up again?
A. The Cisco WCS polls the APs and when the AP is unreachable, reports "Max retransmissions reached on AP ".
B. The AP sends a linkDown then linkUp trap to the Cisco WCS; these are two of the six traps defined in RFC 1215, A Convention for Defining Traps for use with the SNMP.
C. The AP cannot send a linkDown trap, as per RFC 1215, because the link is down; when the link comes back up, the AP sends a linkup trap to the Cisco WLC, which then forwards the trap to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC sends a trap to the Cisco WCS when it detects that an AP is down.
Answer: D

Q: 11 You work as a network engineer .If the WLAN interfaces configured on the different controllers are on different IP subnets (Layer 3 inter-controller roaming), can you telle me what will happen when a client roams from one controller (controller A) to a new controller (controller B)?
A. Controller A will mark the client's entry in its client database as an anchor, controller B will not update its client database because of the anchored entry in controller A, and all ingress and egress traffic will flow through controller A.
B. Controller A will mark the client with an anchor entry in its client database, the database, and the database entry will be copied to controller B and marked with a foreign entry.
C. Controller A will mark the client's entry in its client database as foreign, controller B will update its client database, all ingress traffic will flow through controller A, and egress traffic will flow through controller B when symmetric tunneling is disabled.
D. Controller B will update its client database and all client ingress and egress traffic will transition to the new controller.
Answer: B

Q: 12 You work as a network technician at XXYYinc.com, read this subject carefully ,then answer the question. The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS. What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary?
A. Major
B. Critical
C. Flash
D. Minor
Answer: D

Q: 13 802.11i is a forthcoming specification that will clear up a number of security problems in 802.11. For the following items, which 802.11i key can provide data origin authenticity during the four-way handshake and the group key handshake messages?
A. Key Caching Key
B. Key Encryption Key
C. Groupwise Master Key
D. Key Confirmation Key
Answer: D

Q: 14 For the following commands, which one can determine the health of a RADIUS server on an autonomous AP?
A. show radius statistics
B. debug radius-server
C. show radius table {server_ip}
D. show radius-server {server_ip}
Answer: A

Q: 15 In order to be able to communicate with the WDS master, what must be configured on the APs while setting up a WLAN for Wireless Domain Services?
A. username and password valid on the AAA server
B. multicast group for the WDS
C. IP address of the master WDS and any backup master WDS
D. pre-shared key which matches that of the master WDS
Answer: A

Q: 16 Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers. For the following options ,which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
B. requires CCXv5
C. implements the validation of wireless management frames
D. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
Answer: B, C

Q: 17 Refer to the following options, which two are long-term solutions to hidden node problems? (Choose two.)
A. enable CTS to Self
B. change the RF situation by increasing the power on client work stations (None-AP-STA)
C. increase the radio speed to at least 24 Mb/s
D. change the RF situation by adding additional access points
Answer: B, D

Q: 18 A user complains about problems authenticating via wireless. Which two of the Cisco WLC debug commands below would solve this problem? (Choose two.)
A. debug mac { addr MAC}
B. debug client authentication enable
C. debug dot1x events enable
D. debug client events enable
Answer: A, C

Q: 19 Can you tell me what the LWAPP data and control port numbers are?
A. TCP 16666 and 16667
B. UDP 16666 and 16667
C. TCP 12124 and 12134
D. UDP 12222 and 12223
Answer: D

Q: 20 The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication by use of a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n.
Which will most likely cause this problem?
A. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
B. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting authentication.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.
Answer: D

Q: 21 A VoWLAN user reports bad voice quality. Which three items most likely cause this problem? (Choose three.)
A. round trip delay is greater than 150 ms
B. packet loss is greater than 1%
C. jitter is greater than 30 ms
D. one-way delay is greater than 150 ms
Answer: B, C, D

Q: 22 Which is the objective of a radome?
A. to reduce the mechanical load from wind
B. to indicate which way the antenna is pointing
C. to increase the gain of an antenna
D. to mitigate interference
Answer: A

Q: 23 Do you know at what distance the curve of the earth factors into the antenna elevation calculation?
A. greater than 6 miles (~10 km)
B. 60% of the Fresnel zone
C. greater than 26 miles (~42 km)
D. the width of the Fresnel zone, which varies depending on the distance by which the bridges are separated
Answer: A

Q: 24 How do the characteristics that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
B. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
C. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Answer: D

Q: 25 You are a network technician . According to the following exhibit, a client configured for LEAP authentication, a RADIUS server configured for LEAP, and an autonomous AP configured as displayed. If authentication fails for the client, which is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. The client supplicant: This client is providing the wrong EAP-ID in its EAP Identity response.
B. The RADIUS server timeout: This timeout is too short; the access point will wait for the RADIUS server, then the timer will expire and authentication will fail.
C. The RADIUS server at 192.168.1.22: There is either a RADIUS key mismatch or user credentials are not matching on the RADIUS Server.
D. The AP: The AP is misconfigured, because the authentication is set to use the local database on the AP.
Answer: D

Q: 26 Which two actions will happen when a wireless client deploys a Layer 2 roam between two WLCs with management IP addresses on different IP subnets but dynamic interfaces in the same VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. The new WLC exchanges mobility messages with the original WLC and the client database entry is moved to the new WLC.
B. The client database entry is maintained on both the original and new WLCs.
C. The original WLC marks the client with an "Anchor" entry in its own client database.
D. The client database entry is removed from the original WLC once it has been entered into the new WLC.
Answer: A, D

Q: 27 What is the reason that using a tool like Cisco Spectrum Expert is important?
A. It maps the RF area to a floor plan.
B. It allows you to detect multipath.
C. It allows you to see the radiating environment at Layer 1.
D. It decodes WLAN IPS attacks
Answer: C

Q: 28 In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a local subnet, which action will AP take next?
A. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known.
B. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational.
C. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet.
D. Determine whether the controller responses are the primary controller.
Answer: B

Q: 29 Which three options are true when an H-REAP AP is in the "authentication down/local switching" state for a given WLAN? (Choose three.)
A. New WebAuth sessions are permitted.
B. The AP continues to send beacon probes and responses to keep current clients connected.
C. 802.11 roaming events incur a full 802.1X re-authentication.
D. Any new clients trying to authenticate are rejected.
Answer: B, C, D

Q: 30 Tom works as a network administrator for a company. He is asked to manually configure the Tx power on an 802.11b access point to a power level of 1 (100 mW) after implementing a Cisco 7921G wireless IP phone within a Cisco Unified Wireless Network. Which problem is the user likely to experience when the phone associates to the AP?
A. one-way audio
B. loss of connectivity to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. audio delay or jitter or both
D. the phone displays a "network busy" status message
Answer: A

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2009-09-23T23:51:00.000-07:00

650-251 LCSAUC Cisco Lifecycle Services Advanced IP Communications

Cisco 650-251 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 650-251 Sample Questions:

1. Quality of service is analyzed at which service component within the Cisco Unified Communications plan phase?
A. Network Readiness Assessment
B. Application Readiness Assessment
C. Site Readiness Assessment
D. Operation Readiness Assessment
Answer: A

2. Which optimize phase service component assesses the current state of the network management infrastructure of a customer to identity issues and opportunities that lead to recommendations for improving the ability to manage their Cisco Unified Communications system?
A. Deployment Assessment
B. Technology Assessment
C. Security Assessment
D. Operations Assessment
Answer: D

3. Which statement most accurately describes the account planning service component in the prepare phase for Cisco Unified Communications?
A. It performs a detailed financial analysis, including current phone network costs, training, and return of investment.
B. It researches unique challenges and conducts competitive analysis to determine a vertical approach and strategy.
C. It identifies the key players, highlevel solution requirements, timelines, and scope of the opportunity.
D. It provides the partner with information regarding customer acceptance of the new solution.
Answer: B

4. Which phase includes conducting Cisco Unified Communications network traffic analysis and capacity planning in order to ensure high availability?
A. Design
B. Prepare
C. Maintain
D. Optimize
Answer: D

5. Which two of the following activities are included in the Cisco Unified Communications staff development? Select two.
A. Collect Cisco Unified Communications Training Materials
B. Develop Job Role Training Requirement
C. Request for Training Budget
D. Develop Curriculum Map
E. Develop Informal Basic Training
Answer: B, D

6. Which Service component in Cisco Unified Communications operate phase identifies and solves reoccurring incidents by analyzing incident trends to identify patterns and systemic conditions?
A. Problem Management
B. Incident Management
C. Change Management
D. Systems Monitoring
Answer: A

7. Which service component in the design phase describes developing a detailed, sitespecific plan for implementing the new technology system or solution?
A. Implementation Plan Development
B. Detailed Design Development
C. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
D. Staging Plan Development
Answer: A

8. The final documentation that records detailed implementation information for customers, including specific design requirements, are delivered at which server component within the Cisco Unified Communications implement phase?
A. Project Closeout
B. AsBuilt Documentation
C. Operations Setup
D. PostImplementation Support Handoff Meeting
Answer: B

9. Which service component in the plan phase evaluates the readiness of your current facilities infrastructure to support Cisco Unified Communications system development?
A. Network Readiness Assessment
B. Operation Readiness Assessment
C. Site Readiness Assessment
D. Application Readiness Assessment
Answer: C

10. Which of the following three service requirements are included in the Cisco Unified Communications optimize phase? Select three.
A. Business Case Alignment
B. Security Assessment
C. Incident management
D. Operations Readiness Assessment
E. Technology Assessment
Answer: A, B, E

11. Which phase includes the activity of assisting the customer to monitor their Cisco Unified Communications system performance and to respond to trouble reports?
A. Maintain
B. Deploy
C. Operate
D. Optimize
Answer: C

12. Which service component includes preparing for the Cisco Unified Communications customer demonstrations and presenting an overview of the applicable solutions?
A. Present an Overview of the Design
B. Conduct Administrator and EndUser Trainging
C. Customer Educations
D. Proof of concept
Answer: C

13. Which two Cisco Unified Communications service components focus only on software implementation? Select two.
A. Messaging Implementation
B. Rich Media Implementation
C. Personal Assistant Implementation
D. Auto Attendant Implementation
E. Call Control Implementation
Answer: C, E

14. Which of the following best defines the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. the minimum set of services that are needed to successfully deploy and manage technology solution
B. system design to help ensure selection of the most appropriate products
C. business requirements and investments as they pertain to asset lifecycle management
D. technology strategies and related product lifecycles that are required to ensure minimal risks and maximum return of investment
Answer: A

15. What is the primary objective of the plan phase?
A. Assess the existing environments to determine if it can support the proposed system.
B. Identify the activities for installing and configuring the equipment at the customer sites.
C. Gather highlevel solution requirements, and understand the customer business needs an the opportunity.
D. Prepare the activities for daytoday support, management, and monitoring of the newly implemented system.
Answer: A

16. Which device level design detailed development activity is associated with the create template for each user group task that includes type of phone, required applications and soft key configuration?
A. Design Network Management and Operation Infrastructure
B. Conduct Station Reviews
C. Design Database Integration
D. Design Call Control System
E. Host Feature/Function Design Workshop
F. Design ISN Configuration
Answer: B

17. Which service component in a detailed design development focuses on identification and configuration of the actual network components (routers, servers, localarea networks, and so on) to be incorporated to run and support a Cisco Unified Communications system.
A. System Design Workshop
B. Feature and Functionality Design Workshop
C. Devicelevel Design Workshop
D. Physical Design Workshop
Answer: D

18. Which of the following phases assesses the current network infrastructure of a customer?
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Analyze
D. Design
Answer: B

19. Which three service components belong to the operate phase? Select three.
A. Change Management
B. Operations Implementation
C. System monitoring
D. Incident Management
E. Operations Assessment
Answer: A, C, D

20. Which phase and service component includes comparing the solution requirements with the bill of materials and highlevel design in order to finalize the detailed business and technology requirements for
the Cisco Unified Communications solution?
A. Plan Application Readiness Validation
B. Prepare Proof of Concept
C. Prepare Technology Strategy Development
D. Plan Systems Requirements Validation
Answer: D

21. Which two of the following activities are included in the Cisco Unified Communications project closeout? Select two.
A. Complete Ongoing Support Handoff Materials
B. Prepare for Handoff Meeting
C. Update Leading Practices
D. Obtain Customer Satisfaction Feedback
Answer: C, D

22. During the implement phase, systems acceptance testing provides which two of the following services for the customer? Select two.
A. It installs, configures, and verifies monitoring tools and processes in accordance with the operations implementation.
B. It verifies that the Cisco Unified Communications solutions is ready for production.
C. It verifies that the Cisco Unified Communications solution meets their business and technical requirements.
D. It executes and verifies the migration plan by migrating network services from an existing state to a future state.
E. It provides automated tools for measuring system performance under load.
Answer: B, E

23. Which service component if detailed design development includes completing the Cisco Unified Communications station review template and ensuring that user groups have the right set of features, functions, dialing capabilities, and applications?
A. DeviceLevel Design
B. System Design Workshop
C. Feature and Functionality Design Workshop
D. Physical Design Workshop
Answer: A

24. Which implement phase service component describes the activities to install and test your Cisco Unified Communications solution in a non production lab environment?
A. Proof of Concept
B. Acceptance Testing
C. Staging
D. Lab Testing
Answer: C

25. Which includes an activity to host a workshop that focuses on the identification and configuration of the actual network components (routers, servers, localarea network or LAN, and so on) that will be incorporated to run and support the Cisco Unified Communications system?
A. Implement
B. Design
C. Plan
D. Prepare
Answer: B

26. Which phase includes testing operational processes and procedures in accordance with the Cisco Unified Communications operations plan?
A. Operate
B. Design
C. Deploy
D. Implement
Answer: D

27. In which phase is the staff training development for Cisco Unified Communications planned?
A. Design
B. Implement
C. Plan
D. Prepare
Answer: B

28. n which of the following phases can you ensure that the new Cisco Unified Communications solution is integrated without disrupting the existing network?
A. Operate
B. Plan
C. Deploy
D. Implement
Answer: B

29. What customer benefits are provided by conducting a project kickoff in the Cisco Unified Communications plan phase?
A. It helps to confirm project roles and responsibilites, and milestones dates.
B. It reduces the risk of downtime caused by facilitiesrelated problems.
C. It ensures that the customer receives a detailed network diagram.
D. It ensures enduser support immediately after the launch of the new system.
Answer: A

30. Which service components develops a plan that identifies the necessary steps to move from an existing system to the Cisco Unified Communications system?
A. Migration Plan Development
B. Detailed Design Development
C. Staging Plan Development
D. Implementation Plan Development
Answer: A

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2009-09-23T23:49:00.000-07:00

650-393 LCSE Cisco Lifecycle Services Express

Cisco 650-393 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 650-393 Sample Questions:

1. Which definition best describes the staff training service component within the implement phase?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. improving the network management system and the performance and functionality of infrastructure operations
B. providing a step-by-step plan that details the installation and service-commission tasks required in order to create a controlled-implementation environment that emulates a customer network
C. developing and implementing a training plan using classes, workshops, or c-learning courses
D. compiling a training manual for use in ongoing operations
E. reducing the risk of downtime due to facilities-related problems
Answer: A

2. In which of these phases are a customers technology strategy requirements identified and documented?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Plan
B. design
C. prepare
D. operate
Answer: C

3. What is the key objective of the plan phase?
A. identify the activites involoved in insttalling and configuring equipment at a customer's site or sites.
B. describe the day-to-day activities required to support, manage, and monitor a newly implemented system.
C. assess current network readiness, site readiness, and operational readiness in preparation for designing a solution proposal.
D. gain an understanding of high-level business and technical requirements.
Answer: A

4. In which of these phases is a customers network assessed to determine its system readiness?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following
A. plan
B. design
C. operate
D. implement
Answer: A

5. In the design phase, which service component provides the customer with a comprehensive design?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Implementation Plan
B. Detailed Design Development
C. Project Kick-off
D. Staging Plan
E. High-Level Design
Answer: B

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2009-09-09T04:59:00.000-07:00

Cisco 642-274 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 642-274 Sample Questions:

1. Which is the reason that the video terminal manufacturer, models, and versions are important parts of the planning process?

A. Only a few devices can support SIP and video.
B. All video terminals can dial in to Cisco Unified MeetingPlace video meetings.
C. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace is a SIP-based solution and H.320 devices cannot be supported.
D. Some versions of H.323, SIP, and H.320 video devices cannot negotiate the mid-call escalation correctly.

Answer: D

2. You work as a network engineer for an IT company. Observe the following items carefully, which two fields can be used to customize scheduling and hide specific fields in the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Web scheduling UI form and Outlook plug-in form? (Choose two.)

A. "Customize Outlook Interface" in MeetingPlace Web Admin
B. "Customize Outlook Interface" in Application Server Admin
C. "Scheduling Details Page" in MeetingPlace Web Admin
D. "Account Basics" in Application Server Admin

Answer: B, D

3. Which is the maximum acceptable site-to-site round-trip delay WAN/LAN requirement for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace deployments?

A. 1500 ms round trip
B. 150 ms round trip
C. 150 sec round trip
D. there is no specific requirement

Answer: B

4. In the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace system, which two global video modes and settings affect all video blades? (Choose two.)

A. Standard Video up to 24 ports max with 128 kb/s~2 Mb/s per port
B. Low-End Video up to 24 ports max with 128 kb/s~384 kb/s per port
C. Desktop Video up to 48 ports max with 128 kb/s~2 Mb/s per port
D. Desktop Video up to 48 ports max with 128 kb/s~384 kb/s per port

Answer: A, D

5. Which procedure can best restore the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Application Server master database?

A. Use an FTP file transfer to manually move files and issue a restore command in the Applications Server CLI.
B. Use Telnet to access the Application Server and issue a manual restore command.
C. Use the Backup GUI in the Administration Center to do an automatic restore.
D. Use SSH to access the Application Server CLI and issue a manual restore command.

Answer: D

6. Which three are essential considerations for a dial plan in a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace solution? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Unified MeetingPlace requires at least one dial-in number.
B. Implementing dialing restrictions can affect Cisco Unified MeetingPlace functionality.
C. Calling partitions and calling search spaces can affect Cisco Unified MeetingPlace functionality.
D. Calling partitions and calling search spaces do not affect Cisco Unified MeetingPlace functionality.

Answer: A, B, C

7. How to upgrade the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Audio and Video Blades to a newer release?

A. insert CD with new software, execute file locally
B. SSH connection and transfer file to blades, then execute file
C. remote desktop connection and FTP file to blades, then execute file
D. via laptop IP connection, then execute file

Answer: D

8. A command-line interface (CLI) is a mechanism for interacting with a computer operating system or software by typing commands to perform specific tasks. Which CLI command is used to check the date and time on the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Application Server?

A. ntp_check
B. timezone
C. time
D. date

Answer: D

9. Refer to the following components, which three are deployed in a typical secured Cisco Unified MeetingPlace solution? (Choose three.)

A. antivirus on the Media Server blades
B. Cisco Security Agent on the Web Server
C. Cisco Security Agent on the Application Server
D. SSL certificates

Answer: B, C, D

10. What are required from WebEx prior to configuration on the Cisco Unified MeetingPlace side while initially configuring and testing Cisco Unified MeetingPlace with WebEx integration? (Multiple choice)

A. site name
B. password for WebEx site administration
C. partner ID
D. site ID

Answer: A, B, C, D

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2009-09-09T04:57:00.000-07:00

Cisco 642-736 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 642-736 Sample Questions:

1. With the new Wired Guest Access feature support on the Cisco WLAN Controllers that uses Cisco Unified Wireless Software Release 4.2.61.0 and later, IT managers can provide wired and wireless secured and controlled access to the Internet for guests on the same wireless LAN controller. Which TWO of the following descriptions about wired guest access support are true as of controller release v5.2?
A. It is not supported on the Cisco 2100 Series Controllers.
B. Layer 3 web authentication and passthrough are not supported.
C. No more than three wired guest access LANs can be configured on a controller.
D. The wired guest access ports must be in the same Layer 2 network as the foreign controller.
Answer: A, D

2. The Cisco Secure Services Client (SSC) is a software supplicant that helps you deploy a single authentication framework to access both wired and wireless networks. If we use Cisco SSC to configure a wireless LAN connection that uses EAP-FAST, which THREE of the following options can be used as the inner authentication method?
A. GTC
B. PAC
C. TLS
D. MSChapV2
Answer: A, C, D

3. In computer networking, the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network application protocol used by devices (DHCP clients) to obtain configuration information for operation in an Internet Protocol network. If we implement DHCP services on the anchor controller, which of the following IP address is locally populated in the primary DHCP server field?
A. DHCP relay IP address
B. next-hop router IP address
C. firewall DMZ interface IP address
D. management IP address of the controller
Answer: D

4. Which of the following function is performed by a rogue detector access point?
A. RLDP
B. switch port tracing
C. rogue AP containment
D. identifying a rogue AP on the wired network
Answer: D

5. Cisco NAC uses the network infrastructure to enforce security policy compliance on all devices that seek to access network computing resources. Out-of-band deployments require user traffic to traverse through the NAC appliance only within authentication, posture assessment, and remediation. The Cisco WLC is added as what kind of device on the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager for wireless NAC OOB implementation?
A. RADIUS client
B. RADIUS server
C. SNMP trap receiver
D. OOB management device
Answer: D

6. The guest user account allows a login without a user account to access a database. If the Guest User check box is selected, what will happen once we add a new Local Net User on the controller?
A. Web authentication will be enabled on the guest account.
B. The amount of time the guest user has access to the local network will be limited.
C. The guest user traffic will be associated to the guest VLAN.
D. The controller will authenticate the guest account using the Cisco NAC Guest Server.
Answer: B

7. Drag and Drop question

Answer:

8. Extensible Authentication Protocol, or EAP, is a universal authentication framework frequently used in wireless networks and Point-to-Point connections. When to use the local EAP authentication on the controller?
A. to authenticate the APs that act as 802.1X supplicants
B. as a backup in case the APs cannot reach the controllers
C. as a backup in case the RADIUS servers are not reachable
D. when deploying guest access using the anchor controller
Answer: C

9. We can use the anchor controller to deploy guest WLAN access. If we want to transport the guest data traffic between the foreign and anchor controllers, which of the following can be used?
A. UDP port 16666
B. UDP port 16667
C. IP protocol 97
D. UDP port 161
Answer: C

10. A wireless LAN (WLAN) is a wireless local area network that links two or more computers or devices using spread-spectrum or OFDM modulation technology based to enable communication between devices in a limited area. Which of the following aims at looking for anomalous behavior on a WLAN infrastructure?
A. identifying new attack tools
B. auditing employee's bandwidth usage
C. identifying attacks using signature matching
D. improving performance by load balancing
Answer: A

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2009-08-14T05:45:00.000-07:00

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Questions accompanied by exhibits
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Drag and Drop questions as experienced in the Actual Exams
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Like actual certification exams our product is in multiple-choice questions (MCQs)

Cisco 642-383 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 642-383 Sample Questions:

1. Which of the following best describe the customer benefits of change management in the operate phase?
A. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements
B. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy
C. reduce operating costs and limit change-related incidents by providing a consistent and efficient set of processes
D. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system
Answer: C

2. Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of Cisco technologies.
B. It determines how best to price Cisco products.
C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources.
D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot.
Answer: A

3. What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Digital
B. Optical
C. Analog
D. CDMA
Answer: A, C

4. Which statement correctly describes the keyswitch model of deployment for call processing?
A. All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line.
B. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant.
C. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number.
Answer: A

5. Which definition best describes the implementation service component within the implement phase?
A. providing a step-by-step plan that details the installation and service-commission tasks required in order to create a controlled-implementation environment that emulates a customer network
B. assessing the ability of site facilities to accommodate proposed infrastructure changes
C. developing and executing proof-of-concept tests, validating high-level infrastructure design, and identifying any design enhancements
D. installing, configuring, and integrating systems components based on an implementation plan developed in earlier phases
E. improving a customer's infrastructure security system
Answer: D

6. A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing costs is one of the customer's highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired.
Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. point-to-multipoint
D. hub-and-spoke
Answer: D

7. How can the proper configuration of Voice Mail be tested at an end user's IP phone?
A. Press the "i" button.
B. Press the "Settings" button.
C. Press the "Services" button.
D. Press the "Messages" button.
Answer: D

8. In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed?
A. distribution layer
B. core layer
C. access layer
D. network management functional module
Answer: A

9. Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases?
A. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and maintenance
B. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations
C. prepare, plan, design, implement, operate, and optimize
D. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production
E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations sign-off
Answer: C

10. What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System?
A. IP Phone and desktop
B. Cisco UC520
C. Cisco CE520
D. Cisco 871W
Answer: B

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2009-08-14T05:23:00.001-07:00

Exam code: 642-105
Exam name: Implementing Cisco Unified Messaging
Last Update: August 2009
Version: 9.6
Price: $79.00
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Free 642-105 Sample Questions:

1. Your customer has asked you to install a 24 port Cisco Unity 5.0 voicemail only system with the message store on box. Which three combined software applications does Cisco Unity support in this configuration? (Choose three.)
A. Exchange Server 2007
B. SQL Server 2000
C. Windows Server 2003
D. MSDE Server 2000
E. Exchange Server 2000
F. Exchange Server 2003
Answer: B, C, F

2. The VPIM directory account is created by which Cisco Unity utility?
A. Message Store Monitor
B. Unity Telephone Integration Manager
C. Configuration Manager
D. Advanced Settings Tool
Answer: C

3. After installing and debugging Cisco Unity Bridge, you run the Bridge Analog Network And Node Analyzer. You view the call traces and find that there are errors logged. What is the recommended course of action?
A. Use the port status monitor to check the analog port capacity.
B. Execute the Event Monitoring Service for more in-depth diagnostics.
C. Run BANANA at least daily to learn what ratio of errors is "normal."
D. Run Bridge Directory Synchronization in the Cisco Unity Diagnostic Tool.
Answer: C

4. Message waiting lamps are very slow in coming on after messages are received. The circuit-switched PBX integration is working well and is not the cause. A Cisco Unity port is set to exclusively dial out MWI. How do you confirm that the problem is corrected?
A. Open the Call Viewer Utility. Leave messages for subscribers.
Cisco Unity should immediately send data packets to the phone system.
B. Open the Integration Monitor.
Leave messages for subscribers.
Cisco Unity should immediately send data packets to the phone system.
C. Open the Ports page in the Cisco Unity Telephone Integration Manager. Leave messages for subscribers.
Cisco Unity sould immediately send data packets to the phone system.
D. Open the Ports page on the System Administration screens.
Leave messages for subscribers.
Cisco Unity should immediately send data packets to the phone system.
Answer: B

5. You thought you had assigned the Text to Speech feature to certain users in a class of service, however after importing them using the Bulk Import Utility the feature is not working for any of them. What could be the cause?
A. You selected the incorrect class of service while using the Bulk Import Utility.
B. You forgot to fill in the TTS_FEATURE field.
C. You selected the incorrect subscriber template when using the Bulk Import Utility.
D. You selected the incorrect Exchange mailstore when importing the subscribers.
Answer: C

6. What happens when a subscriber who owns a call handler is deleted from Cisco Unity 5.0?
A. The Cisco Unity program reassigns ownership of call handlers to the subscriber entered on the system > configuration page of the system administration screens.
B. The Cisco Unity program automatically deletes the associated Microsoft Active Directory account.
C. The Cisco Unity program prompts the user to choose a different subscriber to reassign to the deleted subscriber's call handlers.
D. The Cisco Unity program prompts the user to run DbWalker Utility to fix the orphaned call handler.
Answer: A

7. You have completed setting up your call handlers. What utility can you use when dialed in to verify that calls are routed to the correct call handlers?
A. Audio Text Manager
B. Unity Diagnostic Viewer
C. Gather Unity System Information
D. Port Status Monitor
Answer: D

8. Your customer is attempting to add VPIM subscribers and is receiving an error that they must first perform which of these tasks?
A. Configure the Voice Connector.
B. Configure the primary location object.
C. Configure the VPIM account.
D. Configure the VPIM delivery location object.
Answer: D

......

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2009-08-14T05:19:00.000-07:00

Cisco 642-456 Exam - Cheat-Test.com

Free 642-456 Sample Questions:

1.You are the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in XXYYinc.com..You should ensure inbound PSTN calls to work in an H.323 gateway configured with Cisco Unified Communications Manager How should you do? (Choose three.)
A.Register he H.323 gateway with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B.Configure a pots dial peer with directinwarddial and incomingcalled number
C.Execute command h323gateway voip bind srcaddr on the H.323 interface.
D.Configure a VoIP dial peer pointing to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: B, C, D

2.Which two of the following are often sources of toll fraud? (Choose two.) (Source:Preventing Toll Fraud)
A.voice mailtovoice mail transfer
B.CFA
C.transfer from voice mail
D.transfer to an internal destination
Answer: B, C

3.You are the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in XXYYinc.com. Please describe RSVPenabled locationsbased CAC. (Choose two.)
A.RSVP can be enabled selectively between pairs of locations.
B.Using RSVP for CAC simply allows admitting
C.RSVP is topology aware, but only works with full mesh networks.
D.An RSVP agent is a Media Termination Point that the call has to flow through.
Answer: A, D

4.Which two have to be defined in the Forward All field? (Choose two.) (Source:Preventing Toll Fraud)
A.destination
B.partition
C.calling search space
D.hunt list
Answer: A, C

5.You are the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in XXYYinc.com. You are testing new implementation of Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility. When you log out of Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility, users get error messages: "To set up speed dials and other services for your phone, please go to https://ccm_ip@/ccmuser/showHome.do" What is most likely reason?
A.You did not subscribe the IP phone to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility Service.
B.You did not associate the User Device Profile with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility Service.
C.You did not select the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility checkbox for that particular phone.
D.User needs to go into ccmuser and set up speed dials
Answer: B

6.Which is not defined when configuring time periods? (Source: Preventing Toll Fraud)
A.start time
B.end time
C.duration
D.period name
Answer: C

7.A branch site has a group of salespeople that take orders from customers. The site needs to be able to distribute calls evenly to the salespeople when connectivity to the main site is lost. Which two configurations are correct? (Choose two.)
A.Configure hunt groups on the Cisco Unified CME, which is operating in SRST mode.
B.All branch site IP phones will need to be preconfigured in the gateway.
C.Only the salespeople's phones will need to be preconfigured in the gateway.
D.The branch site will need a dedicated UCCX server to queue the customer calls.
Answer: A, C

8.When you are restricting external call transfers, which statement is correct? (Source:Preventing Toll Fraud)
A.Route patterns can be classified as onnet or offnet.
B.Partitions must be classified in order to use calltransfer restrictions.
C.Transfer restrictions, restricted onnettooffnet transfer, and restricted offnettooffnet transfer can be used.
D.Only internal devices must be classified.
Answer: A

9.You are the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in XXYYinc.com. and you have configured SRST at a remote site on an MGCP gateway. You find that IP phones are not registering with the SRST router when the IP WAN fails. Which three potential problems need to be resolved?
A.The maxdn command is missing in the SRST router.
B.No SRST reference address is included in the device pool.
C.The proper service command has not been added to the SRST router.
D.The maxephones command is missing in the SRST router.
Answer: A, B, D

10.Which two service parameters can be configured when using ad hoc conference restrictions? (Choose two.) (Source: Preventing Toll Fraud)
A.Never
B.When First OnNet Party Leaves the Conference
C.When No OffNet Parties Remain in the Conference
D.When Conference Creator Drops Out
Answer: A, D

11.You are the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in XXYYinc.com. Which feature addresses the issues with AAR for mobile users in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A.Extension Mobility
B.Device Mobility
C.Mobile Connect
D.Mobile Voice for Access
Answer: B

12.What is the default value for the Drop Ad Hoc Conference service parameter?
(Source:Preventing Toll Fraud)
A.Never
B.Drop Ad Hoc Conference When Creator Leaves
C.When No OnNet Parties Remain in the Conference
D.When No OffNet Parties Remain in the Conference
Answer: A

13.The list of the Arabia numbers includes pairs of gateway signaling protocols and PSTN trunk types. All gateways are SRST gateways. Please match each item from the list of the Arabia numbers to the correct category of the Rome numbers based on whether active calls to or from the PSTN can be preserved or will be matching when the gateway fails over to SRST mode. (1)MGCP with PRI (2)MGCP with CAS (3)H.323 with PRI (4)H.323 with CAS (I)Calls can be preserved. (II)Calls will be dropped.
A.(I)(2 3 4);(II) (1)
B.(I)(2 4 3);(II)(1)
C.(I)(4 3 2);(II) (1)
D.(I)(4 2 3);(II) (1)
Answer: A

14.What is the purpose of FAC? (Source: Preventing Toll Fraud)
A.timebased call routing
B.restricting call routing to destinations based on the time of day
C.restricting call routing to destinations based on user codes
D.restricting call routing to destinations based on onnet or offnet classification
Answer: C

15.You are the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in XXYYinc.com. After you add the Tcl paramspace command, the application can_ .
A.access the data on an external server
B.access the data on an internal server
C.set aside memory for application variables
D.share parameters between different call applications
Answer: D

16.Why is it important to block commonly exploited area codes when you want to restrict international calls? (Source: Preventing Toll Fraud)
A.Some countries have special premium numbers as country codes.
B.Some countries have special country codes that look like area codes of the United States.
C.Countries such as the Bahamas can be reached either over the country code or over an area code.
D.When these numbers are not blocked, they are treated like normal local telephone calls.
Answer: B

17.You are the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in XXYYinc.com. When a Cisco IP Communicator Phone roams from SJ to RTP, the physical location for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone changes and the Device Mobility Group changes from SJ to RTP. All route patterns are assigned to partitions and configured to utilize the local gateway. After roaming to RTP, if the user dials 911, which statement about the call routing is true?

A.The call will use the RTP gateway.
B.The call will use the SJ gateway because the device's origin is SJ.
C.Emergency calls will go through the RTP gateway as first priority. The SJ gateway will be used as backup.
D.The call will use the SJ gateway because we keep the Device/Line CSS after roaming.
Answer: D

18.Why might a hacker target an IP phone for attack? (Source: Hardening the IP Phone)
A.The attacker can learn about the IP telephony environment.
B.The attacker can start attacks from the IP phone, because it is a trusted device.
C.With a modified image and configuration file, the attacker can bring down the Cisco Unified CallManager.
D.The attacker can sabotage a special user.
Answer: A

19.You are the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in XXYYinc.com. You have deployed a centralized call processing solution with a multicast MOH server at your central site on a different VLAN from your Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers and IP phones. When central site users place calls on hold, dead air or silence is heard. How to solve this issue? (Choose two.)
A.Enable multicast routing on all the routers at the central site.
B.Disable multicast routing on all the routers at the central site.
C.Decrease the TTL configuration in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to 0 so that the multicast packets only go to the VLAN that contains the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server and IP phones.
D.Increase the TTL in the configuration of the MOH server to 2 so that packets can cross the VLAN boundary.
Answer: A, D

20.Where are IP phone security settings configured? (Source: Hardening the IP Phone)
A.Directory Number Configuration
B.Phone Configuration
C.Phone Security Configuration
D.Product Specific Configuration
Answer: D

21.A branch site with an H323 gateway has lost connectivity to the main site.Please match the steps for initiating SRST and returning to normal operation to the correct order. (1)Phone initiates registration with SRST gateway. (2)Phone sends Keepalives to Cisco Unified CM. (3)Phone initiates reregistration. (4)Kepalive responses seen when connectivity is restored. (I)step1 (II)step2 (III)step3 (IV)step4
A.(I)(1);(II)(3);(III)(4);(IV)(2)
B.(I)(2);(II)(1);(III)(4);(IV)(3)
C.(I)(1);(II)(2);(III)(4);(IV)(3)
D.(I)(1);(II)(2);(III)(3);(IV)(4)
Answer: C

22.How do you browse to the IP phone? (Source: Hardening the IP Phone)
A.http://IPphoneIPaddress
B.https://IPphoneIPaddress
C.https://IPphoneIPaddress/CCMAdmin
D.https://IPphoneIPaddress/Admin
Answer: A

23.Please match the characteristic to the correct feature. (1)support for up to 720 phones (2)support for up to 240 phones (3)support for VG248 (4)support for alias command (5)support for softkey templates (6)support for hunt groups (7)SNAP is sued to build ephones (I)Cisco Unified CME in SRST mode (II)SRST (III)SRST and Cisco Unified CME operating in SRST mode
A.(I)(2 5 7);(II)(1 3 4);(III)(6)
B.(I)(2 3 6);(III)(1 5 4);(III)(7)
C.(I)(2 5 1);(II)(6 3 4);(III)(7)
D.(I)(2 5 6);(II)(1 3 4);(III)(7)
Answer: D

24.Which statement is not true about GARP? (Source: Hardening the IP Phone)
A.GARP can be used for a maninthemiddle attack.
B.GARP attacks require access to the target LAN or VLAN.
C.GARP is normally used for HSRP.
D.GARP can be disabled at Cisco IP phones.
Answer: C

25.Which other codecs can be utilized in the region when configuring a region to use the G.729
codec?
A.use all the codecs supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B.use all of the codecs supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager as long as a software
Media Termination Point is available.
C.only use the codec configured in the region configuration field and any other codecs of equal or lower bandwidth.
D.use the configured codec and the default codec as long as it does not exceed the configured bandwidth for the region.
Answer: C

26.Which is not a purpose for the builtin switch in the Cisco IP phone? (Source:Hardening the IP Phone)
A.call recording
B.lawful interception
C.supervisory monitoring
D.provide Power over Ethernet to the PC
Answer: D

27.You are the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in XXYYinc.com.. Your CEO at HQ holds
a weekly meeting with three members of his staff that are located at BR. If the CEO hosts the conference using conferencing resources at HQ, how many audio streams will cross the IP WAN?

A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Answer: B

28.Which two are not cryptographic services? (Choose two.) (Source: Understanding
Cryptographic Fundamentals)
A.authenticity
B.confidentiality
C.resistance against DoS attacks
D.defense in depth
Answer: C, D

29.You are the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in XXYYinc.com. You configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager with a software MTP to use RSVP for Call Admission Control.The maximum sessions are 20,and the maximum bandwidth is 40. Please match the commands to the correct locations in the configuration output. (1) associate profile 1 register HQ1_MTP (2) rsvp (3) ip rsvp bandwidth 40 (4) dspfarm profile 1 mtp (5) maximum sessions software 20 (6) associate application SCCP (7) codec passthrough ! sccp local FastEthernet0/0
sccp ccm 10.1.1.1 identifier 1 version 6.0 sccp ! sccp ccm group 1 associate ccm 1 priority 1 (I) ! (II) (III) (IV) (V) (VI) ! interface Serica0/1 description IPWAN ip address 10.1.4.101.255.255.255.0 duplex auto speed auto (VII) !
A.(I)(2);(II)(6);(III)(1);(IV)(3);(V)(7);(VI)(4);(VII)(5)
B.(I)(2);(II)(1);(III)(6);(IV)(3);(V)(4);(VI)(7);(VII)(5)
C.(I)(2);(II)(6);(III)(1);(IV)(4);(V)(7);(VI)(3);(VII)(5)
D.(I)(2);(II)(6);(III)(7);(IV)(3);(V)(1);(VI)(4);(VII)(5)
Answer: A

30.Which two statements about symmetric encryption are true? (Choose two.) (Source: Understanding Cryptographic Fundamentals)
A.Symmetric encryption is a good choice for realtime encryption of bulk data.
B.Symmetric encryption is commonly used to sign asymmetric keys.
C.Symmetric encryption uses asymmetric keys.
D.With symmetric encryption, the encryption key equals the decryption key.
Answer: A, D

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2009-08-14T05:11:00.000-07:00

Exam Code: 642-145
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IOS Unified Communications Advanced
Last Update: August 2009
Cheat-test Price: $119.00
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Free 642-145 Sample Questions:

1. Your IP telephony manager wants you to configure an FXS port on a voiceenabled router with these requirements:
1) It supports groundstart signaling.
2) Calling name is James Smith.
3) Calling number is 4085551212.
4) Ring frequency is 25hz.
5) Ring cadence is for Germany.
Which configuration will meet these requirements?
A. voiceport 1/0/0
signal groundstart
cptone DE
ring frequency 25
stationid name James Smith stationid number 4085551212
B. voiceport 1/0/0
description extension 5551212, name "James Smith"
signal groundstart ring cadence DE ring frequency 25
C. voiceport 1/0/0
description extension 5551212, name "James Smith"
ring cadence Germany ring frequency 25
stationid name James Smith stationid number 5551212
D. voiceport 1/0/0 signal groundstart cadence Germany frequency 25
stationid name James Smith stationid number 4085551212
Answer: A

2. What is the best practice of configuring an intercom on a shared line?
A. This feature allows all endpoints to participate in intercom messages.
B. This feature allows one endpoint to contact multiple endpoints simultaneously.
C. This feature is not supported and should not be used.
D. This feature can be used only when the intercom ephonedn is configured as a dual line.
E. This feature can be supported only in a unidirectional manner.
Answer: C

3. Refer to the exhibit. When two separate calls, FXO and PRI, arrive at the following Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router, which statement about call behavior is true?

A. The FXO call matches dialpeer 50 pots and succeeds, and the PRI call matches dialpeer 123 pots,but it fails due to a missing port statement.
B. The PRI call matches dialpeer 50 pots and succeeds, and the FXO call matches dialpeer 123 pots,but it fails due to a missing port statement.
C. The FXO call matches dialpeer 50 pots, and the PRI call matches dialpeer 123 pots, but both calls fail due to isconfiguration.
D. The FXO call matches dialpeer 50 pots, the PRI call matches dialpeer 123 pots, and both calls succeed.
E. The PRI call matches dialpeer 50 pots, the FXO call matches dialpeer 123 pots, and both calls succeed.
Answer: D

4. Refer to the exhibit. The Saratoga Softball League is setting up Call Transfer for its Cisco Unified CallManager Express solution, which uses version 4.0. The network supports the H.450 standards. What will be used to execute the transfer?

A. Tcl script
B. hairpin routing
C. H.450.2 standard
D. H.450.3 standard
E. proprietary Cisco method
Answer: E

5. Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Unity Express is not registered to a Cisco Unified Messaging Gateway. What is causing this condition?

A. Local location ID should be changed to be "10".
B. The messaginggateway registration command is not configured.
C. Cisco Unified Messaging Gateway location is not defined.
D. Email domains are not on the same subnet.
E. VoiceView cannot be enabled.
Answer: B

6. An IT manager has been trying to configure Cisco Unified CallManager Express without success. The IT manager has decided that there might be more success with the Automated Setup Utility. To start this process, what command should be executed first?
A. autosetup
B. auto assign
C. no telephonyservice
D. auto telephonyservice
E. telephonyservice auto
F. telephonyservice setup
Answer: C

7. Refer to the exhibit. The Greene Supply Company is integrating Cisco Unified CallManager Express into a SIP network. Which two statements are accurate? (Choose two.)

A. SIP support in dial peers is a Cisco IOS function.
B. Use the notifybased DTMF relay mechanism that is proprietary to Cisco.
C. SIP support in Cisco IOS is a function of localized call processing integrated with Cisco Unity Express.
D. Use either the notifybased DTMF relay mechanism that is proprietary to Cisco or the RFCbased DTMF relay.
E. The SIP server must be configured for the E.164 numbers that are going to register with the Cisco CallManager Express database.
Answer: A, D

8. Which mode allows you to configure the BACD service provided in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. Tcl
B. telephony
C. application
D. IPtelephony
E. telephonyservice
Answer: C

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which command can be used to override all the blocked patterns in the afterhours configuration?

A. Configure the afterhours exempt command under the ephonedn command.
B. Configure the pin command under the ephone command.
C. Configure the afterhours exempt and pin commands under the ephonedn command.
D. Configure the no afterhours block pattern command under the ephone command.
Answer: A

10. Acme Co. is using a Cisco Unified Messaging Gateway to network two of their Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express/Cisco Unity Express sites to each other. Site 11 is running Cisco Unity Express 2.3.4 and Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express 3.2 and site 12 is running Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express 4.2(0) and Cisco Unity Express 3.1. One of the sites autoregisters correctly with the Cisco Unified Messaging Gateway, but the other site does not. Which site
is not autoregistering and what is the reason it is not registering? (Choose two.)
A. Site 11 is not autoregistering.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express 4.2 does not support Cisco Unified Messaging Gateway autoregistration.
C. Site 12 is not autoregistering.
D. Cisco Unity Express 2.3.4 does not support Cisco Unified Messaging Gateway autoregistration.
E. Cisco Unity Express 3.1 does not support Cisco Unified Messaging Gateway autoregistration.
F. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express 3.2 does not support Cisco Unified Messaging Gateway autoregistration.
Answer: A, D

11. Jerry's Fish Farm is installing in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system at their new Sales facility. The office has 4 sales people that handle all incoming sales calls. The manager does not want to have to have a receptionist to answer and route calls, so he wants all of the sales people phones to have the main sales phone number. He also wants them to all ring at the same time, allowing the first available sales person to answer the call. What type of phone system model should they deploy?
A. Octel
B. Key
C. Centrex
D. PBX
E. PSTN
Answer: B

12. Refer to the exhibit. A configuration has been proposed for VPIM networking between two Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express routers using Cisco Unity Express. What component of the proposed configuration must be changed for this configuration to function properly?

A. Location IDs are invalid.
B. Email domain syntax is incorrect, must use DNS for VPIM networking.
C. VPIM broadcast IDs are invalid.
D. VPIM encoding is invalid.
E. Domains are not on the same network.
Answer: D

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Cisco VPN Client Troubleshooting TechNotes

2009-08-05T11:23:00.000-07:00

Cisco VPN Client

Troubleshooting TechNotes

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CertifySky > Cisco Certification > Cisco Training Exams

The Best Cisco Practice Exams, Cisco dumps, Cisco Exam Questions resource

2009-08-05T11:21:00.000-07:00

View All Cisco Certification Exams

Cisco Certifications

Access Routing and LAN Switching : Access Routing and LAN Switching

APE for Validating Knowledge : APE for Validating Knowledge

CCDA : Cisco Certified Design Associate

CCDE : Cisco Certified Design Expert

CCDP : Cisco Certified Design Professional

CCENT : Cisco Certified Entry Networking Technician

CCIE : Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert

CCIP : Cisco Certified Internetwork Professional

CCNA : Cisco Certified Network Associate

CCNA Security : Cisco Certified Network Associate Security

CCNA Voice : Cisco Certified Network Associate Voice

CCNA Wireless : Cisco Certified Network Associate Wireless

CCNP : Cisco Certified Network Professional

CCNP Old : Cisco Certified Network Professional Old

CCSP : Cisco Certified Security Professional

CCVP : Cisco Certified Voice Professional

CDCNSS : CDCNSS

Content Networking : Cisco Content Networking Specialist

CRMAM : CRM Express for Account Managers

CSE : Cisco CSE

IP Communications : Cisco IP Communications

IT Certification and Career Paths : Cisco IT Certification and Career Paths

Network Management : Cisco Network Management

Optical : Optical Quality of Service (QoS)

Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge

Sales : Cisco Sales

Sales Expert : Cisco Sales Expert

SMB Engineer : Cisco SMB Engineer

Specialist

Storage Networking : Cisco Storage Networking Specialist

VPN and Security : VPN/Security Management Solution 2.3

WAASSE : Cisco WAASSE

Wireless LAN : Cisco Wireless LAN Support Specialist

Other Cisco Exams : Other Cisco Exams

Cisco Certifications

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Cisco VPN client downloads

2009-08-05T11:16:00.000-07:00

Cisco VPN client downloads

I declare to have knowledge of the website http://www.cisco.com/wwl/export/crypto/tool/stqrg.html.

Cisco vpn client with config file included

Download vpn-client 5.0.04.0300 for Windows Vista/XP/2000

Cisco vpn client without config file

Download Vpnclient 4.8 for Windows 98/Me
Download Vpnclient 4.9 for Mac (Mac OS 10.4.* and 10.5)
Download Vpnclient 4.8.00.0490 for Mac (
Download Vpnclient 4.6.03.0160 for Mac (
Download Vpnclient 4.8.00.0490 for Linux

Config file

UGent vpn-client config file

Find Cisco VPN Client downloads, reviews, and updates for Mac OS X including commercial software, shareware and freeware.

Cisco VPN Client 4.9.01.0180 software download - Mac OS X

2009-07-29T00:41:00.000-07:00

Simple to deploy and operate, the Cisco VPN Client enables customers to establish secure, end-to-end encrypted tunnels to Cisco remote access VPN devices supporting the Unified Client Framework. This thin design, IPSec implementation is available via Cisco.com for use with any Cisco central site remote access VPN product and is included free of charge with the Cisco VPN 3000 Concentrator. The client can be pre-configured for mass deployments and initial logins require very little user intervention. VPN access policies and configurations are downloaded from the central gateway and pushed to the client when a connection is established, allowing simple deployment and management as well as high scalability. The Cisco VPN Client provides support for Windows 98, ME, NT 4.0, 2000, XP, Mac OS X (PPC and Intel), Linux Intel and Solaris UltraSparc.
Software also available from:
http://www.cisco.com
Login | Technical Support | Software Center | VPN Software | VPN Client | Download

Cisco VPN Client 4.9.01.0180

Download Now

What's new in this version:

http://www.cisco.com/web/software/282364316/25213/vpnclient-darwin-4.9.1.0180-readme.txt

Operating System Requirements:

This product is designed to run on the following operating systems:

Mac OS X 10.5 Intel
Mac OS X 10.5 PPC
Mac OS X 10.4 Intel
Mac OS X 10.4 PPC

Cisco Certifications

Cheat-Test is the leader in supplying certification candidates with current and up-to-date training materials for Cisco Certification and Exam preparation. Cheat-test Cisco resources are constantly being revised and updated for relevance and accuracy. We 100% guarantee the materials with quality and reliability which will help you pass any Cisco certification exam.

Cisco VPN Client - Free software downloads and reviews

2009-07-29T00:36:00.000-07:00

Cisco VPN client downloads

I declare to have knowledge of the website http://www.cisco.com/wwl/export/crypto/tool/stqrg.html.

Cisco vpn client with config file included

Download vpn-client 5.0.04.0300 for Windows Vista/XP/2000

Cisco vpn client without config file

Config file

UGent vpn-client config file

Cheat-test > Cisco Exams
View All Cheat-Test Cisco Certification Exams

Cisco VPN Client - Download Free Software

2009-07-29T00:33:00.000-07:00

Cisco VPN Client - Download and Install

Cisco VPN Client System Requirements:

Client must run one of the following operating systems:

Windows 98, ME, NT4, 2000, or Windows XP
Linux
Solaris Unix
Mac OS X 10.2

VPN Servers Supported:

The Cisco VPN client is compatible with the following VPN servers from Cisco:

Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrator Software 3.0 and later
Cisco IOS Software 12.2(8)T and later
Cisco PIX Firewall Software 6.0 and later

VPN Tunneling Protocols Supported:

PPTP, L2TP, L2TP/IPsec and several other forms of IPsec related to ESP, NAT, UDP and TCP.

Client Restrictions:

incompatible with VPN clients from other vendors
incompatible with many personal firewalls. Firewalls may need to be specially configured, or turned off, when running the Cisco VPN client
incompatible with Windows Internet Connection Sharing (ICS
incompatible with AOL 7.0 and AOL 8.0

Cisco VPN Client Download Location:

http://tools.cisco.com/support/downloads/pub/Redirect.x?mdfid=270636499